Baptism is a vital topic. In the view of many Bible students, baptism is
an essential part of our salvation. But many denominational doctrines
are opposed to this, claiming that baptism is, at best, merely "an
outward sign of an inward grace." In this view it is an outward
testimony to the world that one has previously accepted Christ and has
been saved before baptism. And there are some denominations that have
done away with baptism altogether, evidently considering it of no value,
such as the Salvation Army and the Christian Science Church.
Why is this such an important topic? If Christ has taught us through his
revealed Word that baptism is essential to salvation, then one cannot
hope to enter heaven without it. Thus one can see why this is so
important. Let us consider what the Scriptures have to say on the
matter. We will not go to human opinions, church creeds or Biblical
commentaries, but only to the Word of God.
"Now there was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the
Jews; this man came to Him by night, and said to Him, "Rabbi, we know
that You have come from God as a teacher; for no one can do these signs
that You do unless God is with him." Jesus answered and said to him,
"Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the
kingdom of God." Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he
is old? He cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb and be
born, can he?" Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one
is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of
God". (John 3:1-5)
In this passage, Christ has plainly stated that one cannot enter into
the kingdom of God without this new birth of "water" and "the Spirit."
Since we are focusing on what the water is, we will leave consideration
of the meaning of "the Spirit" for another time. There are basically
three views as to what the water is:
(1) that it is the water in the mother's womb at the time of birth;
(2) that it refers to the Word (the Bible), and
(3) that it is baptism.
As to referring to the water in a natural birth, we must observe that a
man (an adult) must be born again of both "water" and "the Spirit." Thus
the context does not agree that this is the water associated with
natural birth. With respect to the second view, that water refers to the
Bible, there is strong evidence that being born again of "the Spirit"
has reference to the Holy Spirit's influence upon our new birth through
the revealed Word (I Peter 1:22-23, etc.). So if "water" means
"Word," then Christ is saying that we must be born again of word and
word. And that wouldn't make much sense. Furthermore, if the Lord had
meant to say "Word," why did he say "water?" The only conclusion that
fits the context is that this water is baptism. To further support this,
we refer to Romans 6:3-5, where baptism is clearly depicted as a birth
to a new life.
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ
Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried
with Him through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised
from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in
newness of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness
of His death, certainly we shall be also in the likeness of His
resurrection."
Do you see that we are "raised from the dead" in baptism that we might
"walk in newness of life?" That fits exactly the idea expressed in
John 3 in Christ's conversation with Nicodemus--"new birth" equals
"new life."
Next we turn to Mark 16:16, as Christ is giving his final word to
the disciples before he leaves to return to heaven. "He who has believed
and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall
be condemned." How could it be said in a plainer way? Consider an
illustration. "He who has bought a ticket and boarded the train shall
reach his destination; but he who has not bought a ticket shall be stuck
at home." Was it necessary for the man to have bought the ticket in
order to reach his destination? Obviously. Would we also have to say,
"He who has not bought a ticket and not boarded the train shall be stuck
at home?" We can easily see that "not boarded the train" would be
unnecessary, since he would not board the train without the ticket. Now,
what do we understand Christ to have said? Could it be read, "He who has
believed and has not been baptized shall be saved?" Can we take such
liberty with the words of our Lord? Consider something that Luke said
concerning the Pharisees:
"But the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected God's purpose for
themselves, not having been baptized by John" (Luke
7:30).
Now, if these religious leaders "rejected God's purpose" when they
refused to be baptized by John the Baptist, then what is our situation
if we "reject God's purpose" in refusing to honor the necessity of the
command of Christ?
In looking at the book of Acts, we see thousands and thousands of people
being baptized. This began at the beginning of the preaching of the
gospel--the day of Pentecost. As Peter and the other apostles convinced
their audience that the man whom they had crucified was indeed the Son
of God, many hearers were convicted of sin, and asked what they might do
to remove their guilt. Notice the narrative in Acts 2:36-38:
"Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has
made Him both Lord and Christ-- this Jesus whom you crucified." Now when
they heard this, they were pierced to the heart, and said to Peter and
the rest of the apostles, "Brethren, what shall we do?" And Peter said
to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus
Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift
of the Holy Spirit."
The result of this is seen in v. 41:
"So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and there were
added that day about three thousand souls."
Note that those who "received his word" were baptized. Is it safe to
assume that those who were not baptized did not "receive his word?" We
observe that that very day some 3,000 were baptized. That is contrary to
denominational practices today that may make one wait weeks, months, or
even years before they are allowed to be baptized, or which would
eliminate baptism altogether.
Some try to get around the force of Acts
2:38
by claiming that Peter was teaching that the real meaning is "Repent,
and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ BECAUSE OF
the forgiveness of your sins." In the English language, "for" can have
different meanings. "I went shopping for a new coat," means "in order to
obtain" a new coat. But "I went to jail for bank robbery," means that I
went to jail because of a crime I committed. So, what does Acts
2:38
mean? There are three things to consider.
(1) Can we find a similar passage where the meaning is without question;
(2) does the original Greek of the New Testament give us any help;
(3) does the context of v. 38 gives us any clues?
(1) As to a similar passage, we note Matthew 26:27, 28, where
Christ is instituting the Lord's Supper:
"And when He had taken a cup and given thanks, He gave it to them,
saying, "Drink from it, all of you; for this is My blood of the
covenant, which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins."
The point to be made here is that we have the same wording in both
passages. In Acts it says baptism is "for forgiveness of sins," while in
Matthew it says that Christ's blood was poured out "for forgiveness of
sins." Do we believe that Christ shed his blood because sins had already
been forgiven? Obviously not! Therefore it does not seem likely that
baptism was commanded because sins have already been forgiven.
(2) In the original Greek, the words are identical in both passages.
Furthermore, the Greek word "eis," which is translated "for," may also
be translated "in order to" or "unto," and carries the idea of "with a
view towards." It is never translated "because of."
(3) As to the context of the verse, we note that Peter commanded two
things: "Repent, and let each of you be baptized..." There is a little
word that connects the two commands-"and." The rules of grammar tell us
that "and" is "a coordinate conjunction connecting words, phrases or
clauses of equal rank." Thus repent and be baptized are equally
important in the verse, and both would be qualified by the same
modifiers. Now, if "be baptized" is to be done because sins were already
forgiven, then the command to "repent" would also be because sins had
already been forgiven. That conclusion is ludicrous. How can the word
"for" have two different meanings in the same verse? Nowhere in the
Scriptures are we taught that sins are forgiven before we even repent.
Thus the quibbles made against the clear meaning of Acts
2:38
do not hold up in the light of investigation.
In the eighth chapter of Acts, we have the story of an Ethiopian
government official who was taught the Word of God by Philip the
evangelist. Philip was teaching this man as they rode in the eunuch's
chariot.
"And Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture he
preached Jesus to him. And as they went along the road they came to some
water; and the eunuch said, 'Look! Water! What prevents me from being
baptized?' And Philip said, 'If you believe with all your heart, you
may.' And he answered and said, 'I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son
of God.' And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went down
into the water, Philip as well as the eunuch; and he baptized him. And
when they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord snatched
Philip away; and the eunuch saw him no more, but went on his way
rejoicing" (Acts 8:35-39).
There are at least three points to make from this narrative.
(1) Philip "preached Jesus," to this man, which then led to the question
about baptism. Obviously, "preaching Jesus" includes preaching baptism,
or else the eunuch would not have known to ask about it.
(2) It was water that was the element in which the baptism took place.
Some try to argue that the baptism commanded in the Great Commission is
Holy Spirit baptism, or baptism in fire, or maybe even something else,
but this passage, coupled with Acts 10:47, John 3:3-5; Acts 22:16; I
Peter 3:20-21, etc., show that water is the element under
consideration.
(3) Again we note that baptism was an immersion in water. It would be
somewhat foolish to go "down into the water" just to pour or sprinkle
some water on the head.
Turning to Acts
22:16,
we find the apostle Paul retelling the story of his conversion. The Lord
encountered Saul (as he was then known) in a blinding light on the road
to Damascus. When Paul was convinced that Jesus was the Son of God, he
was instructed to go into the city to a certain place where he would
receive instructions. In time Ananias came to him with the word of the
Lord:
"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins, calling on His name."
When did the "washing away of sins" take place, before, or after, the
baptism? Note that Paul had believed three days before, yet was still in
his sins when Ananias came to him. And no, the Bible does not teach that
the water of baptism literally takes away sin as it takes away dirt. But
God teaches that he takes away our sins when we conform to his will at
the point of baptism.
Perhaps an Old Testament story may serve to illustrate the part water
has to play in our salvation. In II Kings 5, an army captain came
to the prophet Elisha to be healed of his leprosy. He was told to go
wash in the
Jordan River
seven times, and his health would be restored. At first he was furious
at such a dumb instruction, but at the urging of a servant, he repented
and went to the river. When he came up the seventh time, his skin was
like that of a little child. Now, what cleansed him? It was not the
water, but God, who bestowed his grace and mercy upon Naaman. But would
he have been cleansed if he had not obeyed by going into the river?
Similarly, the water of baptism does not cleanse us from sin. God does
that through his grace and mercy. But God has connected water and
cleansing from sin in the same way that he connected water with
cleansing from leprosy. The truth is that our salvation is a combination
of grace and an obedient faith.
Turning next to the letter to the church at Rome, we consider a passage
to which we have already made reference, Romans 6:3-5:
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ
Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried
with Him through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised
from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in
newness of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness
of His death, certainly we shall be also in the likeness of His
resurrection."
There are two significant matters to consider here.
(1) Baptism is a burial in water, not a sprinkling of water. Although
the "mode" of baptism is not the subject of this treatise, it is
noteworthy that the Bible itself claims that baptism is a "burial," and
that it is a depiction of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ.
It is a fact that the definition of the Greek word "baptizo" literally
means "to dip, plunge, submerge." And Bible students and commentators
from all religious viewpoints agree that immersion in water was the
practice of the early church.
(2) Note also that one is baptized into Christ. If one is saved before
baptism, then one is saved before one is in Christ. But that is
impossible, for salvation is found only in Christ, in a spiritual
relationship with him.
"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed
us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ"
(Ephesians. 1:3).
Can we find any passage teaching that one can be saved apart from
Christ? There is no such passage. Therefore, with confidence we can say
that one cannot be saved without being baptized into Christ in the
manner that the Scriptures teach--by immersion, a burial in water.
In writing to the church at
Corinth,
Paul dealt with some serious problems. The first thing he tackled was
the division that was evident, as some were more concerned about
following men than simply following Christ.
"Now I exhort you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that
you all agree, and there be no divisions among you, but you be made
complete in the same mind and in the same judgment. For I have been
informed concerning you, my brethren, by Chloe's people, that there are
quarrels among you. Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I
am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were
you baptized in the name of Paul?" (I Cor. 1:10-13).
As Paul was chiding them, he reminded them of two significant things,
namely
(1) that Paul had not been crucified for them, and
(2) that they had not been baptized in the name of, or by the authority
of, Paul.
What lessons can we draw from this? Among other things, we can note that
if one could rightly claim to be "of Christ," there were two things
necessary:
(1) Christ had to have been crucified for them, and
(2) they had to have been baptized by the authority of Christ.
Therefore, if one has not been baptized according to the teaching of
Christ, he cannot in truth belong to Christ--cannot be "of Christ."
As we continue our search through the Holy Scriptures to find teaching
about baptism, we come across Galatians 3:26, 27:
"For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of
you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ."
People become "sons of God" through "the faith," i.e., the system or
body of faith that God gave (the word "the" is in the original Greek).
The location of our sonship is "in Christ Jesus," which should be
obvious, for salvation is in Christ. But when does this sonship take
place? When do we become "clothed with Christ?" It is at the point of
baptism! If someone disputes this, then they can argue with the inspired
apostle Paul. That's what he said about it, under direction of the Holy
Spirit. And also note that the expression, "baptized into Christ" is the
same that was used in Romans 6:3-5.
There is an interesting passage in Colossians that gives a perspective
on baptism that differs from what many denominations say about baptism.
Many claim that baptism is a work, and since we are not saved by works,
therefore baptism has nothing to do with our salvation. But note the
wording in Col. 2:12:
"...having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also
raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him
from the dead."
There are two points to consider here:
(1) We again note that baptism is called a burial, not a sprinkling, and
(2) baptism is called a "working of God," rather than a working of man.
Baptism has to do with our "faith in the working of God," who raised us
up with Christ in the act of baptism. Question: Can one be saved without
this "working of God?" Note also that Christ called faith itself a
"work" that is approved of God (John
6:29).
If it is true that we are saved without any kind of work or obedience,
then we are saved without faith. Who can believe that? You see, faith or
believing is something that man does, in considering the evidence and
drawing a conclusion.
Titus 3:4-7
has some interesting points to consider.
"But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind
appeared, He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in
righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of
regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, whom He poured out upon us
richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, that being justified by His
grace we might be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life."
Please consider what is affirmed in this passage.
(1) We are not saved by works of human merit, "but"
(2) we are saved "by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the
Holy Spirit. Therefore
(3) the "washing of regeneration" is not a work of human merit.
(4) Being saved "through the washing of regeneration" is equated with
"being justified by His grace." What is the "washing of regeneration and
renewing by the Holy Spirit?" Do you see a parallel with the statement
of Christ in John 3:3-5, where Nicodemus was told to be "born
again of water and the Spirit?"
"washing of regeneration" "renewing by the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5)
"born again of water" "and the Spirit" (John 3:5)
Also note in the passage in Titus that the "washing of regeneration"
stands in contrast to the "deeds...done in righteousness" or the works
of human merit. So the Bible itself denies that baptism is a work that
we do in order to earn salvation, in spite of what some men would claim.
A
clear passage dealing with baptism is I Peter 3:20, 21, as Peter
writes about the preaching that was done to the people in Noah's day
"who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the
days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that
is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water. And
corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt
from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-through the
resurrection of Jesus Christ."
Now, many "preachers" say that "baptism does not save us," but the Word
of God clearly states, "baptism now saves you." Which are we to
believe--God's Word, or the word of men? Peter is making the point that
Noah's salvation by water is a figure of our salvation by water. As Noah
was separated from the destruction that was in the world as the water
floated the ark, so we are separated from the destruction of sin by the
water of baptism. And note, as has been shown before, that it is "not
the removal of dirt from the flesh" to which the passage refers, but
rather it is "an appeal to God for a good conscience." My appeal to God
is after baptism, not before. In a sense God says, "If you do this, I
will take away your sins." I then comply with God's will, and then I
appeal to God as I present myself as one who has obeyed his will. Is
that difficult to understand? According to this passage, does baptism
save us, or not save us?
Lest we leave the reader with the impression that baptism alone saves
(as some denominations teach), let us consider a fuller view of God's
plan of salvation for us.
God's
Plan of Salvation
Perhaps there is no more important subject than how we are saved. The
Philippian jailer asked Paul and Silas, "Sirs, what must I do to be
saved?" (Acts
16:30)
There is general agreement on some points. We certainly agree on the
part the grace of God plays in our salvation, "for the grace of God has
appeared, bringing salvation to all men" (Titus
2:11).
Some would stop there, claiming that we are saved by grace alone, but
the Scripture goes further, "instructing us to deny ungodliness and
worldly desires and to live sensibly, righteously and godly in this
present world" (v. 12). Quite simply, there are "instructions"
that God has given us, even as they were given to the jailer at
Philippi.
If it were not so, then all would be saved, since God's grace has
"appeared to all men." But we know that not all will be saved. Yes,
salvation is a gift, the free gift of God, but a gift must be received
as well as given. More than once has a gift been offered, but not
accepted.
(a) Faith is a fundamental ingredient in our being restored to God.
John
3:16
is probably one of the most well-known verses in the Bible:
"For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that
whoever believes on Him should not perish, but have eternal life."
(See also Heb. 11:6, etc).
But are we saved by "faith only?" The denominations of men teach this.
"Wherefore, that we are justified by faith only, is a most whole- some
doctrine and very full of comfort" (METHODIST DISCIPLINE and Episcopal
BOOK OF COMMON PRAYER).
Similar statements are made in Baptist and Presbyterian doctrinal
statements. In fact, nearly every Protestant denomination has a similar
statement in its creed book. I had a conversation with a young Baptist
preacher one time, and I asked if he believed in salvation by "faith
only." He replied in the affirmative. I then asked him to read James
2:24:
"You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone."
He didn't know what to say except, "That's not the kind of God I serve,"
and closed his Bible (as he closed his mind). He then admitted that he
had never read James, and did not know that verse was in the Bible, but
that made no difference. The whole point of James 2 is that we
are saved by an obedient faith, not just an intellectual faith. Many
Scriptures bear this out, such as Heb. 11:30:
"By faith the walls of
Jericho
fell down, after they had been encircled for seven days."
When did the walls fall? It was after their faith moved them to obey.
Was God's grace present? Assuredly so, for God had told Israel, "See, I
have given
Jericho
into your hand" (Joshua 6:2). They did not fight for the city,
and thus did not earn it, but it was given to them by the grace of God.
But suppose they had said, "We have faith that God will give us the
city, so we will sit and wait for the walls to fall flat." Would they
have been surprised when the walls didn't go "boom?"
If "faith only" saves, then we have a problem with certain of the Jewish
rulers:
"Nevertheless many even of the rulers believed in Him, but because of
the Pharisees they were not confessing Him, lest they should be put out
of the synagogue" (John
12:42).
Were they saved? Not if they refused to confess Christ. Furthermore,
James, in rebuking the idea of faith without obedience chided his
readers with this statement:
"You believe that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and
shudder" (James
2:19).
Dear reader, the doctrine of "faith only" is simply not founded upon the
Word of God.
(b) Repentance is quite necessary. Christ gave the call to repentance
when he told the people that "unless you repent, you will all likewise
perish" (Luke 13:3). Repentance is a change in heart and life, as
we turn from serving Satan and sin to serving God and righteousness.
Many profess to believe in Christ, but do not bring about change in
their lives.
(c) Christ teaches us that we should not be ashamed of him, but that we
should confess him before others, and he will then confess us before his
Father (Matt.
10:32).
(d) So far, there is pretty general agreement on the terms mentioned for
salvation. But when it comes to baptism there is great controversy. The
Bible is very clear on this matter, as we have seen, but for some reason
denominational doctrines take opposite views. Please carefully consider
again some of the verses we have cited:
Mark 16:16:
"He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who
has disbelieved shall be condemned."
John 3:3-5: "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born
again, he cannot see the
kingdom
of God."Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? He
can not enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?"
Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water
and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."
Acts
2:38:
"And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the
name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall
receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'"
Acts
22:16:
"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins, calling on His name."
Gal. 3:27: "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have
clothed yourselves with Christ."
I Peter 3:21: "And corresponding to that, baptism now saves
you--not the
removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good
conscience
through the resurrection of Jesus Christ."
Other Scriptures could be cited, but these illustrate the point very
well. In Mark, Jesus coupled baptism with faith before salvation:
Belief + Baptism = Salvation.
Most denominational doctrines turn this around, and make it
Belief = Salvation + Baptism.
In view of this, why is it that so many preachers and denominations
stumble at the plain teaching of the Bible on the subject of baptism? Is
it because of Satan's influence--that great deceiver? The apostle Paul
wrote of those who appear to be teachers of truth, but in truth "such
men are false apostles, deceitful workers, disguising themselves as
apostles of Christ. And no wonder, for even Satan disguises himself as
an angel of light. Therefore it is not surprising if his servants also
disguise themselves as servants of righteousness; whose end shall be
according to their deeds" (II Corinthians
11:13-15).
I am not saying that all such men are deliberate and knowing in their
teaching of error (though some are), but they themselves may be
deceived. But the results are the same--they teach error, and their
worship is in vain. Christ rebuked the religious leaders of his day for
teaching things that were not a part of God's revelation:
"But in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the precepts of
men" (Matt. 15:9).
With respect to the statement in I Peter 3:21, there is a most
interesting quote from J. W. Willmarth in the Baptist Quarterly of July,
1877. Mr. Willmarth wrote a tract those long years ago entitled "Baptism
and Remission." This courageous man went completely against the Baptist
position on baptism, by clearly stating what the Bible teaches. In
discussing the passage mentioned, he said:
In this remarkable passage it is positively asserted that, in some
sense, baptism saves us; and in that same sense it must, of course, be
related to the Remission of our sins. Certainly, it would seem that
baptism must be very important, intimately connected with Remission and
Salvation. How can an unprejudiced mind survey this testimony and then
relegate Baptism to the realm of Mere Emblem, Symbol and Profession?
However they are to be explained, the facts from the record are these.
Our Lord before his departure commanded that those who would be his
disciples should be baptized; and united Baptism with Faith in the
promise of Salvation. The apostles and their co-laborers directed
inquirers to repent, believe and be immersed in order to Remission.
Baptism is often alluded to in the Epistles in harmony with this view of
it, and also as related to other important things in Christian life and
hope.
What about the Thief on the Cross?
Some want to be saved like the thief on the cross, who died with Christ.
When he asked Christ to remember him, Christ promised "today you shall
be with Me in
Paradise"
(Luke
23:43).
"There," they say, "the thief wasn't baptized, and he was saved."
Abraham wasn't baptized, either, nor were Moses and Elijah. Why? There
was no such command. The command for baptism was given after the death
and resurrection of Christ, as we see in Mark 16:16. The thief
couldn't have obeyed the command of Christ, even if he had wanted to,
for the command had not been given. The thief had been dead and buried
for many days. Furthermore, we note that the will, covenant or testament
of a man does not come into force until there has been death. This is a
point of law that the Bible also recognizes.
"For where a covenant is, there must of necessity be the death of the
one who made it. For a covenant is valid only when men are dead, for it
is never in force while the one who made it lives" (Hebrews
9:16-17).
When did Christ make the promise to the thief? Before he died. When did
Christ's "last will and testament" come into effect? After he died. And
there is another point to consider. If we can be saved like the thief,
then we don't have to believe in the resurrection of Christ. Romans
10:9 reads that if you "believe in your heart that God raised Him
from the dead, you shall be saved." Did the thief believe this?
Obviously not, for Christ had not even died, thus certainly had not been
raised from the dead. Remember the old adage, "That which proves too
much, proves nothing."
Baptism an Outward Sign?
Then some counter with the statement that "Baptism is only an outward
sign of an inward grace." I cannot count the number of times I have
heard that. The statement is made to negate the importance of baptism.
For the sake of argument, I will concede that baptism is "an outward
sign." Does that make it any less vital? Consider circumcision of the
male child in Israel. Circumcision was the "sign" of the covenant God
had with Israel. Could one be a true Israelite without the "sign?" Just
read the passage in the Old Testament that told how they were to
circumcise even the foreigners if they wanted to be a part of Israel.
"And you shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskin; and it
shall be the sign of the covenant between Me and you. And every male
among you who is eight days old shall be circumcised throughout your
generations, a servant who is born in the house or who is bought with
money from any foreigner, who is not of your descendants. A servant who
is born in your house or who is bought with your money shall surely be
circumcised; thus shall My covenant be in your flesh for an everlasting
covenant. But an uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh
of his foreskin, that person shall be cut off from his people; he has
broken My covenant" (Gen. 17:11-14).
Note that circumcision was a "sign." Obviously it was an outward sign.
And note also that one who did not have the sign was to be "cut off from
his people."
Another such example is when God sent the plague of death upon the
firstborn in Egypt. What did God tell the Jews to do if they were to
escape this? They were to take the blood of a lamb and sprinkle it on
the doorpost of the house.
"And the blood shall be a sign for you on the houses where you live; and
when I see the blood I will pass over you, and no plague will befall you
to destroy you when I strike the land of Egypt" (Exodus 12:13).
Questions: Could one be an Israelite without the "sign" of circumcision?
Could one spared from the plague without the "sign" of blood? Can one be
saved without the "sign" of baptism? The Word of God speaks plainly!
Wasn't Paul sent not to baptize?
The argument is made by some that Paul's statement in I Corinthians 1
shows that baptism is not important.
"I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, that
no man should say you were baptized in my name. Now I did baptize also
the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I
baptized any other. For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach
the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, that the cross of Christ should
not be made void" (14-17).
There are two or three points to consider.
(1) Paul was rebuking the Corinthian Christians because of a party
spirit that had arisen. We might say they had "preacheritis." In view of
this, Paul was glad that he had not acted in such a way to generate such
feelings. Thus he was thankful he had baptized only a few of them, lest
a large number would think they were to be esteemed above others, since
the apostle had baptized them.
(2) If Paul was literally not sent to baptize, then he did wrong by
baptizing the household of Stephanas.
(3) The truth is, the expression "not...but" is a way of emphasizing one
matter over another, but it does not negate what is prefaced with the
"not." As an example of this, consider John 6:27: "Do not work
for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal
life." Now, is this forbidding working for the food that sustains the
body, or saying it is not important? Obviously not. In fact, Christ
taught his disciples to pray to the Father, asking for daily bread
(Matt.
6:11).
Paul is saying that the emphasis is to be on preaching the gospel. When
people receive the gospel, baptism will follow, as we have seen in
thousands of cases in the book of Acts. If the emphasis were on baptism,
then we could go out and compel people to be baptized, or we could go
and baptize babies even against their will, as some denominations do.
But such would not be scriptural baptism. Genuine baptism is based on
the faith of the one baptized, as is seen over and over again in such
verses as Mark
16:16:
"He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who
has disbelieved shall be condemned."
It makes one wonder why people will take one verse that they may not
understand clearly, and try to make it contradict many others verses
that are clear and easy to understand. Would such be like the Pharisees
who thought that John's preaching on baptism was not important, and
"rejected God's purpose for themselves, not having been baptized by
John" (Luke
7:30)?
Or perhaps the problem is as Paul described those who are deceived and
perish "because they did not receive the love of the truth so as to be
saved" (II Thessalonians
2:10).
Isn't Sincerity Enough?
You say you are religious? You go to church? You believe? Is that all it
takes? Please consider the words of Christ:
"Not everyone who says to Me, Lord, Lord, will enter the kingdom of
heaven; but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven. Many
will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your
name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many
miracles?' And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you. Depart
from Me, you who practice lawlessness.'" (Matt. 7:21-23).
What does it mean to practice "lawlessness?" It means practicing
something for which there is no law, no authority. Do you see the
supreme importance of "whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the
name of the Lord Jesus..." (Col. 3:16)? If you remember, Cain was
religious. He offered sacrifices, but God refused to accept them. The
reason his sacrifices were rejected? Because they were not by faith
(Heb. 11:4). Abel's offerings were by faith, and faith comes by
hearing God's word (Rom.
10:17).
So we must conclude that God will only accept worship and service that
is according to his Word. What seems good to us may not seem good to
God. What pleases us may not please God. (Isa. 55:8-9) The
apostle Paul asks why his Colossian readers are submitting to the
decrees of men "in accordance with the commandments and teachings of
men? These are matters which have, to be sure, the appearance of wisdom
in self-made religion and self-abasement and severe treatment of the
body, but are of no value against fleshly indulgence" (Col. 2:20-23).
Notice the reference to "self-made religion." Too often people want to
worship God according to what pleases them, rather than according to
what pleases God. People have told me, "I wouldn't go to a church that
didn't have..."--whatever it was that "turned them on." It didn't matter
whether God wanted it or not; they wanted it.
As to sincerity, consider the case of the apostle Paul. Before he became
a Christian, he sincerely served God. On one occasion, as Paul was
defending himself in court, he said he had lived his "life with a
perfectly good conscience before God up to this day" (Acts 23:1).
Obviously Paul was sincere, but in his sincerity, he blasphemed God, put
Christians in jail, and participated in the death of Stephen. Later, as
he stood before King Agrippa, he went over some of these things, and
confessed that although he was most sincere he was also most mistaken:
"So then, I thought to myself that I had to do many things hostile to
the name of Jesus of Nazareth" (Acts 26:9).
Do you see the point? Paul was sincere, but he was mistaken. His
sincerity did not make him right with God. He had to change. Consider
this: a person may be sincerely mistaken, but once truth is presented to
such a person, one of two things will happen--either the person will
cease to be mistaken, or the person will cease to be honest. Sincerely
worshipping God in error will do no more good than taking cyanide while
mistakenly thinking it is aspirin. The cyanide may get rid of the
headache, but death is a pretty drastic "cure." My friend, in order to
be pleasing to God, one must be sincerely right. Sincerely wrong is not
acceptable. God has warned us that "There is a way which seems right to
a man, but its end is the way of death" (Prov.
14:12).
We certainly understand this principle in other matters. In taking
medicine, we want to be right. Would you be willing to take a
prescription that you knew was in error, just because it tasted good?
Or, if you were taking a prescription, and someone was able to show you
from research data that the prescription was potentially fatal, would
you continue to take it just because you had confidence in your doctor,
or just because your parents may have taken it? I don't think so. Would
sincerity on your part overcome the negative results of bad medicine?
Obviously not. A person who takes poison, while mistaking it for good ,
will still die. It has happened! Now, if we show such concern for our
physical life, should we not show the same concern about our eternal
life? Do not think that merely being sincere will ensure your entrance
into heaven.
Conclusion
There is no more important matter to consider than that of our eternal
salvation. It has been my purpose in this writing to present what the
Word of God teaches about a subject concerning which there is much false
teaching in the world. Consider the fact that the Standard Manual for
Baptist Churches states that "Baptism is not essential to salvation"
(Hiscox, p. 20), and the Jehovah's Witnesses' book, The Truth that
leads to Eternal Life, states that baptism "is not a washing away of
one's sins, because cleansing from sin comes only through faith in Jesus
Christ" (p. 183). These are but two examples of dozens that could be
presented that contradict the Bible's teaching on the purpose of
baptism. And many denominational creed books, such as the Methodist
Discipline, the Presbyterian Westminister Confession of Faith,
the Catholic Catechism, and other such books teach that baptism
can be administered by pouring or sprinkling water. Then we have other
denominations, such as the Salvation Army and Christian Science, which
eliminate baptism altogether.
Can you afford to base your hope of eternal life on the teachings of
denominational doctrines? Can you afford to be a part of a church that
does not teach the truth about salvation? Dear reader, eternal
condemnation is not worth the risk. Do not allow the doctrines of men to
cause you to be lost.
Jefferson David Tant
11550
Strickland Road
Roswell, GA 30076-1228
Jdtant3@simplychristians.org
Other
Articles by Jefferson David Tant
A Decision of
Faith
Does It Really Matter to God?
The New Testament Church and the Churches of Men